ThmDex – An index of mathematical definitions, results, and conjectures.
Proof P3196 on R1073: Mean value theorem
P3196
Consider a function $g : [a, b] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by \begin{equation} g(x) : = f(x) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} (x - a) \end{equation} Now \begin{equation} g(a) = f(a) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} (a - a) = f(a) \end{equation} and \begin{equation} g(b) = f(b) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} (b - a) = f(b) - f(b) + f(a) = f(a) \end{equation} That is, $g(a) = g(b)$. Furthermore, $g$ is a sum of $f$ and a first-degree polynomial, whence results
(i) R2890: Basic real polynomial function is differentiable
(ii) R2891: Finite sum of differentiable functions is differentiable

guarantee that $g$ is differentiable on $(a, b)$. Result R1074: Rolle's theorem now guarantees that there exists $x \in (a, b)$ such that \begin{equation} 0 = g'(x) = f'(x) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} \end{equation} Adding $\frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}$ to each side, we end up with \begin{equation} f'(x) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a} \end{equation} This is exactly what was required to be shown. $\square$